12-02-2013, 08:20 AM
Better question: suppose a "private" subdivision collects enough money to pave all its roads. Property value increases, followed by higher taxes.
Given that County didn't pay for the road improvements (nor are they likely to pay for maintenance), how exactly did they become entitled to the additional tax revenue?
Given that County didn't pay for the road improvements (nor are they likely to pay for maintenance), how exactly did they become entitled to the additional tax revenue?