10-23-2014, 04:17 AM
If JW is married to E, whose name is on the deed, and not his, wouldn't he have the right to such properties just because they are married? I think that by law he is entitled to 50 %, unless E purchased such properties before their marriage. If such properties were acquired while married then JW is entitled by law to speak at the meetings.
JMO
punalvr
JMO
punalvr
punalvr

