04-28-2016, 05:27 AM
For something to be illegal, it has to be against a legal statute in place at the time of the action.
Such as ... granting final subdivision plat approval before the required infrastructure has been built? Here it is 50 years later -- somehow nobody has been prosecuted -- so it's probably safe to assume that any land-use which creates sufficient revenue is "legal" for all intents and purposes.
(Yes, I try to avoid that "same old rant" -- it's just too relevant here, and provides the perfect test case if anyone actually wants to argue "land-use legality issues"... bring it on.)
Such as ... granting final subdivision plat approval before the required infrastructure has been built? Here it is 50 years later -- somehow nobody has been prosecuted -- so it's probably safe to assume that any land-use which creates sufficient revenue is "legal" for all intents and purposes.
(Yes, I try to avoid that "same old rant" -- it's just too relevant here, and provides the perfect test case if anyone actually wants to argue "land-use legality issues"... bring it on.)